HI This is my first post here.
I'm trying to make my own game and I really suck at math.
Can anyone solve this riddle?
Ken and Dan want to win, to win, they must throw a variable on xd10.
Before the game starts, Ken and Dan have a number of $ that they can spend. With these $ they can buy d10's and the variable (chance) that they must roll to win.
EX
Ken paid for 1d10 with a variable of 5 (50% chance of victory).
To win, Ken must throw 1d10 and get that result or lower.
Let's say that +10%=1$
Players can also invest in penalties for all their adversaries.
They can invest their $ in dice, bonusses(their own percent) and penalties.
Question 1:
How much would -10% cost?
Question 2:
When -10% and +10% point values were determined.
How much would it cost the players to "buy" 1d10?
What is the price of 1d10?
(The price for getting a chance at winning, they still have to pay for the % on those dice seperatly.)
Let's say, that Dan wants two shots. (Two dice rolls.)
Does this cost him $? (He is already paying for the percent of each roll.) In the above example: if 10%=1, two rolls (each 50% would cost him a total of 5+5points=10points, wich would allow Ken to buy 100% and win the game.
AN ANSWER FROM BBG, but it looks incorrect...
"For the first question, I'd say +10% and -10% should be equal in cost, purely mathematically speaking. Perhaps thematically you might want to adjust it to something like: pay $x+1 to lower the opponents odds by x*10%. In plain English, you pay $1 just to be able to mess with him, and then every additional $1 lowers his odds by 10%.
Second question:
Buying 2 rolls (50% and 50%) doesn't add up to 100%. You multiply the chance of failure, so 0.5 (or 50%) times 0.5 = 0.25 (or 25%) chance of failure. Two rolls = 75% chance of success. So an extra d10 would be worth 2.5; you'd have to choose if you wanted to value it at $2 or $3.
So the 3rd d10 would be .5 * .5 * .5 = .125 chance of failure, equals 87.5% chance of success. So the 2nd and 3rd d10's together are worth 37.5%, or ~$4.
Thus, if you valued a d10 at $2, the first one purchased would be worth a little more than you paid, the second a little less, and each successive die worth less and less.
If you value it at $3, and only allow the player to purchase one extra die, then it is a risky move, since the odds gain is a little less than the expense. This might be a good thing, depending on the intent of your design.
Even if you had infinite d10's, the chance of success never reaches 100%. It gets close, but there's always the chance that you'll roll all >5's.
MY PROBLEM WITH THIS
(Yes, I was too stupid to understand his answer, so please keep yours clean and easy..)
10percent chance on 1d10= 2$(d10)+1$(10%)=3$
100percent chance on 1d10= 2$(d10)+10$(100%)=12$
System correct? Do all of these players have the same chance at winning?
100percent chance on 1d10 (player A) = 12£
20percent chance on 1d10 + all other players -80% (player B) = 12£
10percent chance on 2d10 (player C) + 60percent chance on 1d10 = 12£
(Player C can't win, player B destroyed his chances with his -80%)
With the penalty of 1point for screwing over other players (would the "-1point for screwing other players" be multiplied with each -10% or a base value 1+ "number of -10% penalties"?)
Thanx in advance and for reading my post.
If you know a link where I can get this info - please post it.
The value if any given mix of non-additive dice (each considered individually) is merely (100/(d x 10)) x (total v).
what is "v" ?